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Tests for self-control

1. Inside nerve cells in the cytoplasm there can be seen vacuoles and tanks that are located in the perinuclear region. Under the light microscope you can see these structures formed as dots and commas. How are they called?

A) inclusions; B) the Golgi complex; C) centrioles; D) the endoplasmic reticulum; E) lysosomes

2. What is the final place of primary lysosomes’ formation?:

A) nucleus; B) the nucleolus; C) endoplasmic reticulum; D) mitochondria; E) plate-alike complex

3. Which of them we refer to membranous organelles?:

A) mitochondria, the Golgi complex, ribosomes; B) microtubules, mitochondria, lysosomes; C) lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria; D) ribosomes, the Golgi complex, centrioles, microtubules; E) the center of the cell, mitochondria, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum

4. Somatic diploid cell entered the mitosis process. Its course was broken as a result of the destruction of mitotic spindle. At what stage will the normal course of mitosis be disrupted?

A) at the stage of interphase; B) at the stage of metaphase; C) at the stage of telophase; D) at the stage of anaphase; E) at the stage of prophase

5. What structures are included in the structure of mitochondria?

A) cristae, matrix; B) membrane, cristae, matrix; C) the tube, cristae, matrix; D) vials, tubes, cristae; E) membrane, vesicles, tubules, cristae, matrix

6. Under the influence of harmful substances the cell nucleus was damaged. How will it affect on the functional state of the cell?

A) synthetic processes will accelerate; B) glycogen formation will be disrupted; C) process of cell division will be disrupted ; D) cell will enter into synthetic period; E) there will be a suppress of RNA ribosome’s’ synthesis

7.What is a chromatin? Chromatin –is :

A) component of the endoplasmic reticulum; B) trophic inclusion; C) a component of mitochondria; D) specialized cell; E) the material of chromosomes

8. Select the correct answer. What can be located on the free (active) surface of cells:

A) ribosomes; B) desmosomes; C) microvilli, desmosomes, microvilli; D) cilia, microvilli; E) peroxisomes

9. Name the place of ribosomal RNA and ribosomes’ formation in the cell:

A) nucleolus; B) mitochondria; C)endoplasmic reticulum; D) plate complex; E) peroxisomes;

10. The composition of the plate-alike system includes:

A) flat tanks, bubbles; B) small and large bubbles, the membranes, ribosomes; C) microtubules, flat tanks, desmosomes: D) ribosomes, centrioles, microfilaments; E) flagella, flat tanks, bubbles

11. In what period of the cell cycle cells have a diploid DNA content per nucleus (2c)?

A) synthetic; B) postsynthetic; C) mitosis; D) presynthetic; E) synthetic and postsynthetic

12. At what stage of mitosis daughter chromosomes apart to the poles?

A) prophase; B) prometaphase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) telophase

13. At which phase of the cell cycle the synthesis of RNA and protein occurs?

A) presynthetic; B) presynthetic and postsynthetic; C) synthetic and postsynthetic; D) synthetic; E) mitosis

14. Morphological signs of aging cells. All true, EXCEPT:

A) decrease of the cell volume; B) increase of large lysosomes; C) the accumulation of pigment and fat inclusions; D) vacuolization of the cytoplasm and nucleus; E) an increase in the number of organelles.

15. Which chromosome figure reflects the stage of prophase of mitosis?

A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the nucleus; B) tangle of chromosome strands located at the place of the nucleus; C) equatorial maternal star; D) pole chromosomal subsidiary stars; E) simple nucleus with clumps of chromatin

16. The high mobility of the cells is ensured by...

A) pseudopodia; B) absorptive rim; C) cilia, flagella; D) brush border; E) microvilli

17. Functions of granular endoplasmic reticulum:

A) protection; B) involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates; C) promotes the absorption of lipids; D) in the synthesis of RNA; E) provides a synthesis of the protein for export from the cell

18. In the process of cell division the cytokinesis process occurred. Specify the stage of mitosis.

A) interphase; B) prophase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) telophase

19. What is the place in the cell where peroxisomes form?

A) plate-alike Golgi complex; B) the cell center; C) mitochondria; D) the endoplasmic reticulum; E) ribosome reticulum;

20. Chromosomal figure which is typical for the anaphase stage of mitosis?

A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the nucleus; B) tangle chromosome strands instead of the nucleus; C) equatorial maternal star; D) polar chromosome subsidiary stars; E) the normal nucleus with clumps of chromatin

21. What can be referred to non-membrane cell organelles?:

A) mitochondria, the plate complex, centrioles. lysosomes; B) microtubules, mitochondria, microfibrils; C) lysosomes, ribosomes, centrioles, mitochondria; D) ribosomes, flagella, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria; E) centrioles, ribosomes, microtubules, microfibrils

22. What chromosome figure is typical for the metaphase stage of mitosis?

A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the nucleus; B) tangle chromosome strands instead of the nucleus; C) equatorial maternal star; D) pole chromosomal subsidiary stars; E) the normal nucleus with clumps of chromatin

23. What are the types of somatic cell division:

A) mitosis, meiosis; B) amitosis, meiosis; C) mitosis, amitosis; D) meiosis, fragmentation; E) karyokinesis, meiosis

24. For the epithelial layer of cells it is typical that:

A) the presence of basement membrane, the lack of direct contact between the cells; B) desmosomal connection, the presence of intercellular substance; C) tight junctions, small blood vessels; D) polarity in the structure, close contacts; E) low capacity for regeneration, the polarity of structure

25. What blood cells secrete histaminase?

A) basophils; B) monocytes; C) erythrocytes; D) B-lymphocytes; E) eosinophils

26. Embryo’s first body of hematopoiesis:

A) bone marrow; B) liver; C) spleen; D) lymph node; E) yolk sac

27. Choose the blood cells that secrete heparin:

A) T-lymphocytes; ) B-lymphocytes; C) eosinophils; D) basophils; E) neutrophils

28. Blood. All true, EXCEPT:

A) many intercellular substances; B) a variety of cell types; C) mesodermal origin; D) a high regenerative capacity; E) participates in maintaining homeostasis

29. The smallest blood elements:

A) erythrocytes; B) lymphocytes; C) neutrophils; D) eosinophils; E) thrombocytes

31.The most numerous leukocytes:

A) monocytes; B) basophils; C) neutrophils; D) lymphocytes; E) eosinophils

31. Give the correct sequence of cell differentiation during hematopoiesis:

A) half-stem cells, differentiated cells, unipotent cells, mature cells; B) mature cells, differentiated cells, stem cells, unipotent cells, half-stem cells; C) stem cells, half-stem cells, unipotent cells, differentiated cells; D) differentiated cells, unipotent cells, half-stem cells, stem cells, mature cells; E) unipotent cells, differentiated cells, mature cells, stem cells, half-stem cells

32. The largest blood cells:

A) erythrocytes; B) lymphocytes; C) neutrophils; D) eosinophils; E) monocytes

33. The function of T-lymphocytes:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity, synthesis of immunoglobulins; C) cell immunity and regulation of humoral immunity; D) gas exchange; E) blood clotting

34. Specify granulocytes:

A) lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes; B) basophils, neutrophils. eosinophils; C) neutrophils, monocytes, erythrocytes; D) monocytes, eosinophils, lymphocytes; E) erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils

35. Specify agranulocytes:

A) lymphocytes, monocytes; B) basophils, eosinophils; C) neutrophils, lymphocytes; D) monocytes; E) erythrocytes.

2 - option
1. In the leucocyte count of the patient increased the percentage of young and stab neutrophils and reduce the content of segmented neutrophils. What is the name given state leukocyte?
A) leukopenia; B) lymphopenia; C) lymphocytosis; D) shift to the left; E) right shift
2. It is known that plasma cells produce specific antigen challenge antitela.Pri their number is increasing dramatically. Due to any increase in the number of cells are plasma cells?
A) basophils; B) eosinophils; C) neutrophils: D) T lymphocytes; E) B cells
3. In a smear of blood cell is visible round shape, the cytoplasm of which contains a fine dust-like grit, exhibit properties as basophilia and oksifilii. Determine blood cells.
A) basophil; B) neutrophils; C) eosinophil; D) lymphocyte; E) monocyte
4. What are the effector cells with humoral immunity.
A), B-lymphocytes; B) macrophages; C) T-helper cells; D) plasma cells; E) T-killers
5. In the leucocyte count 80% of the patient's neutrophils. What do you call this condition?
A) eosinophilia; B) hypoeosinophilia; C) lymphocytosis; D) lymphopenia; E) neutrocytosis
6. When a blood test revealed a sharp decrease in hemoglobin. What is the function of the blood while respecting?
A) transport; B) breathing; C) trophic; D) homeostatic; E) protective
7. The human erythrocyte includes ...
A) a core hemoglobin plasmalemma. granular-mesh structure; B) hemoglobin, plasma membrane cytoplasm and nucleus; C) cytoplasm, plasmalemma, hemoglobin. D) hemoglobin, nucleus, cytoplasm; E) granular-mesh structure, hemoglobin
8. In the blood smear is visible large cells with large bean-shaped nucleus. The cytoplasm is devoid of grain and painted in a homogeneous light blue color. Determine blood cells.
A) monocyte; B) eosinophil; C) lymphocyte; D) basophil; E) neutrophil
9. The stages of erythropoiesis:
A) erythroblasts progranulocyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte; B) a stem cell, reticulocyte, erythrocyte; C) stem cell proeritroblast, erythroblast, erythrocyte; D) stem cell progranulocyte, erythroblast. reticulocyte, erythrocyte; E) stem cell proeritroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
10. What are the effector cells in cell immunity?
A) T-killers; B) T-suppressors; C) T-helper cells; D) macrophages; E) B cells
11. Platelets. All true, except:
A) thrombopoietin - a stimulant of their education; B) formed in the spleen; C) formed in the bone marrow; D) involved in the formation of a thrombus; E) predshestavenniki are large and giant polyploid nucleus
12. Specify which cells in the bone marrow normally enters the blood?
A) megakaryocyte; B) erythroblast oxyphilous; C) a reticulocyte; D) basophilic erythroblast; E) reticular cells
13. Specify blood cells secreting histamine:
A) polymorphonuclear leukocytes; B) eosinophils; C) monocytes; D) basophilic leukocytes; E) platelets
14. Stem cells. All true, except:
A) similar to that of small lymphocytes; B) does not contain specific cytoplasmic granules; C) constantly divided; D) is not differentiated; E) may extend into the bloodstream
15. Erythropoiesis. All true, except:
A) cells predecessor first oxyphilous. then - basophilic; B) takes place under the action of erythropoietin; C) occurs globin synthesis and accumulation of hemoglobin; D) basophil progenitor cells first, then oxyphilous; E) at the final stage of the protein synthesizing system collapses
16. Neutrophils. Choose the correct answer
A) formed in the spleen; B) secrete histamine; C) synthesized antibody; D) involved in phagocytosis; E) have a rounded nucleus
17. Leukocytes. All true, except:
A) involved in phagocytosis; B) synthesized collagen; C) actively move; D) migrate along a gradient of chemical factors; E) are involved in humoral and cellular immunity
18. Specify the cell differentiate into macrophages:
A) eosinophil; B) basophil; C) T-lymphocyte; D) monocyte; E) B-lymphocyte
19. In the nerve cells in the cytoplasm and vacuoles are seen tanks, located in the perinuclear region. In the light microscope, these structures have the form of dots and commas. What are they called?
A) turn; B) the Golgi complex; C) centrioles; D) the endoplasmic reticulum; E) lysosomes
20. Name the final place of formation of primary lysosomes:
A) nucleus; B) the nucleolus; C), endoplasmic reticulum; D) mitochondria; E) plate complex
21. membranous organelles include:
A) mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, ribosomes; B) microtubules, mitochondria, lysosomes; C) lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria; D) ribosomes kompleksGoldzhi, centrioles, microtubules; E) the center of the cell, mitochondria, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum
22. The somatic diploid cells entered mitosis. Its course was broken as a result of the destruction of mitotic spindle. At what stage will the disruption of normal during mitosis?
A) at the stage of interphase; B) at metaphase; C) telophase; D) on the stage of anaphase; E) at prophase
23. What structures are part of the mitochondria?
A) cristae, matrix; B) membrane, cristae, matrix; C) the tube, Kristen, matrix; D) vials, tubes, Kristen; E) membrane vesicles, tubules, Kristen, matrix
24. Under the action of harmful substances in the cell nucleus is damaged. How will this affect the functional state of the cell?
A) will gain synthetic processes; B) disrupted the formation of glycogen; C) by disrupting the processes of cell division; D) cell enters into synthetic period; E) will suppress the synthesis of RNA and ribosomes
25. What is the chromatin? Hromatin- this:
A) component of the endoplasmic reticulum; B) trophic inclusion; C) a component of mitochondria; D) specialized cells; E) the material of chromosomes
26. Choose the correct answer. On the free (active) surface of cells located:
A) the ribosome; B) desmosomes; C) microvilli, desmosomes, microvilli;
D) cilia, microvilli; E) peroxisomes
27. Name the place of education in the cell ribosomal RNA and ribosomes:
A) nucleolus; B) mitochondria; C), endoplasmic reticulum; D) plate complex; E) peroxisomes;
28. The composition of the plate system includes:
A) flat tank bubbles; B) small and large bubbles, the membranes, ribosomes; C) microtubules, flat tank desmosomes: D) ribosomes, centrioles. microfilaments; E) flagella, flat tank, bubbles
29. In what period of the cell cycle cells have a diploid DNA content per nucleus (2c)?
A) Synthetic; B) postsynthetic; C) mitosis; D) presynthetic; E) and synthetic postsynthetic
30. At what stage of mitosis daughter chromosomes to the poles apart? A) prophase; B) prometaphase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) telophase
31. In which phase of the cell cycle is a synthesis of RNA and protein?
A) presynthetic; B) presynthetic and postsynthetic; C) and synthetic postsynthetic; D) Synthetic; E) mitosis
32. Morphological signs of aging cells. All true, except:
A) decrease in the cell; B) increase in large lysosomes; C) the accumulation of pigment and fat inclusions; D) vacuolization of the cytoplasm and nucleus; E) an increase in the number of organelles.
33. What is the chromosome figure reflects the stage of prophase of mitosis?
A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the kernel; B) tangle chromosome strands at the nucleus; C) equatorial parent star; D) pole chromosomal child stars; E) normal kernel with clumps of chromatin
34. The high mobility of the cells is ensured ...
A) pseudopodia; B) absorptive rim; C) cilia, flagella; D) brush border; E) microvilli
35. Functions of granular endoplasmic reticulum:
A) protection; B) involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates; C) promotes the absorption of lipids; D) in the synthesis of RNA; E) provides a synthesis of the protein for export from the cell

Option

1. What are the blood cells secrete histaminase?

A) basophils; B) monocytes; C) erythrocytes; D) B-lymphocytes; E) eosinophils

2. The first body of hematopoiesis in the embryo:

A) bone marrow; B) liver; C) spleen; D) lymph node; E) the yolk sac

3. Specify blood cells secreting heparin:

A) T lymphocytes; ) B-lymphocytes; C) eosinophils; D) basophils; E) Neutrophils

4. Blood. All true, except:

A) many intercellular substance; B) a variety of cell types; C) mesodermal origin; D) high regenerative capacity; E) participates in maintaining homeostasis of r

5. The smallest elements of the blood:

A) red blood cells; B) lymphocytes; C) neutrophils; D) eosinophils; E) platelets

6. The most numerous white blood cells:

A) monocytes; B) basophils; C) neutrophils; D) lymphocytes; E) eosinophils

7. Specify the correct sequence of cell differentiation at krovetvor e Research Institute:

A) polustvolovye cells, differentiated cells, unipotent cells, mature cells; B) mature cells, differentiated cells are stem cells, on nilpotent unip cells polustvolovye cells; C) stem cells polustvolovye cells unipoten m nye cells differentiated cells; D) differentiating cells, unipotent cells, stem cells from the floor, stem cells, mature cells; E) unipotent cells, differentiated cells, mature cells, stem cells, stem cells from floor

8. The largest blood cells:

A) red blood cells; B) lymphocytes; C) neutrophils; D) eosinophils; E) monocytes

9. T-lymphocyte function:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity) synthesis of immunoglobulins; C) the regulation of cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity; D) gas exchange; E) blood clotting

10. Specify granulocytes:

A) lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes; B) basophils, neutrophils. eosinophil and ly; C) Neutrophils, monocytes, erythrocytes; D) monocytes, eosinophils, lymphocyte and you; E) erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils

11. Specify agranulocytes:

A), B lymphocytes, monocytes; B) basophils, eosinophils; C) neutrophils, lymphocytes; D) monocytes; E) erythrocytes

February 1. Segmented nucleus is a characteristic feature:

A) agranulocytes; B) platelets; C) erythrocytes; D) granulocytes; E) monocytes

13. A large number of lysosomes and peroxisomes is typical for:

A) red blood cells; B) lymphocytes; C) basophils; D) of eosinophils; E) neutrophiles

14. The number of red blood cells in 1 ml of blood is:

A) 3.5 - 4.5 million .; B) 5.0 - 6.5 million .; C) 4.0 - 5.5 million .; D) 2,5 - 4,0 million .; E) 2.0 - 3.0 million.

15. B lymphocytes function:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity / immunoglobulin synthesis /; C) Cleto h ny regulation of immunity and humoral immunity; D) gas exchange; E) blood clotting

16. What is wbc blood?

A) the amount of hemoglobin; B) The number of erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets in 1 mm .; C) the percentage of all types of white blood cells; D) The number of leukocytes in 1 l .; E) no right answer

17. What is a blood count?

A) the amount of hemoglobin in the blood: B) the number of red blood cells, white blood cells and clot of blood cells in 1 ml of blood; C) the percentage of all leukocytes; D) the number of white blood cell and comrade in 1 mm .; E) no right answer

18. The functions of red blood cells:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity; C) cell-mediated immunity; D) blood coagulation; E) no right answer

19. Platelet function:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity; C) cell-mediated immunity; D) blood coagulation; E) antigen binding

20. Name the place of education in the cell ribosomal RNA and ribosomes:

A) nucleolus; B) mitochondria; C), endoplasmic reticulum; D) plate complex; E) peroxisomes;

21. The structure of the plate system includes:

A) flat tank bubbles; B) small and large bubbles, the membranes, ribosomes; C) microtubules, flat tank desmosomes: D) ribosomes, centrioles. mikrofilame n you; E) flagella, flat tank, bubbles

22. In what period of the cell cycle cells have a diploid DNA content per nucleus (2c)?

A) Synthetic; B) postsynthetic; C) mitosis; D) presynthetic; E) and Synthetic cal and postsynthetic

23. At what stage of mitosis daughter chromosomes apart to Paul Yu himself? A) prophase; B) prometaphase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) the bodies of the phase

24.V which phase of the cell cycle is a synthesis of RNA and protein?

A) presynthetic; B) presynthetic and postsynthetic; C) Synthetic e ENGLISH and postsynthetic; D) Synthetic; E) mitosis

25. Mor physical traits of aging cells. All true, except:

A) decrease in the cell; B) increase in large lysosomes; C) n Nako tion of pigment and fat inclusions; D) vacuolization of the cytoplasm and nucleus; E) to the increase of the amount of organelles.

26. What chromosomal figure reflects the stage of prophase of mitosis?

A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the kernel; B) tangle chromosome strands at the nucleus; C) equatorial parent star; D) pole chromosomal child stars; E) normal kernel with clumps of chromatin

27. The high mobility of the cells is ensured ...

A) pseudopodia; B) absorptive rim; C) cilia, flagella; D) to the brush and capacious; E) microvilli

28. Functions of granular endoplasmic reticulum:

A) protection; B) involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates; C) promotes the absorption of lipids; D) in the synthesis of RNA; E) provides a synthesis of the protein for export from the glue t ki

29.Pri cell division process of cytokinesis occurred. Specify the stage m and mitosis. A) interphase; B) prophase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) and for telof

30.Nazovite place in the cell formation of peroxisomes

A) plate Golgi complex; B) the cell center; C) mitohon Dr. Rhee; D) the endoplasmic reticulum; E) ribosomes

31. Chromosomal figure characteristic of anaphase of mitosis?

A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the kernel; B) tangle chromosome strands instead of the kernel; C) equatorial parent star; D) polar chromosome child stars; E) but p-formal nucleus with chromatin clumps

32. By nemembrannym cell organelles include:

A) mitochondria, the plate complex, centrioles. lysosomes; B) microtubules mit of mitochondria, microfibrils; C) lysosomes, ribosomes, centrioles, mitochondria; D) ribosomes, flagella, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria; E) centrioles, ribosomes, microtubules, microfibrils

33. Which figure is typical for chromosomal metaphase stage of mitosis?

A) the individual chromosome strands instead of the kernel; B) tangle chromosome strands instead of the kernel; C) equatorial parent star; D) pole chromosomal child stars; E) but p-formal nucleus with chromatin clumps

34. What are the types of somatic cell division:

A) mitosis, meiosis; B) amitosis meiosis; C) mitosis amitosis; D) meiosis fragmentation; E) curry on kinesis, meiosis

35. For the epithelial layer of cells is characterized by:

A) the presence of basement membrane, the lack of direct contact between the cells; B) Desma doubts about the connection, the presence of intercellular substance; C) tight junctions, small blood vessels; D) polarity in the structure, close contacts; E) low capacity for regeneration, the polarity of structure.

Option

1. In the leucocyte count of the patient increased the percentage of young and stab neutrophils and reduce the content of segmented neutrophils. What is the name Mr. da tion state of leukocyte?

A) leukopenia; B) lymphopenia; C) lymphocytosis; D) shift to the left; E) right shift

2. It is known that plasma cells produce specific antigen challenge antitela.Pri their number is increasing dramatically. Due to some cell proish DIT increase in the number of plasma cells?

A) basophils; B) eosinophils; C) neutrophils: D) T lymphocytes; E) B cells

3. In a smear of blood cell is visible round shape, the cytoplasm of which contains L IU Kuyu atomised grit exhibiting properties as basophilia and oksifilii. About n thinned blood cells.

A) basophil; B) neutrophils; C) eosinophil; D) lymphocyte; E) monocyte

4. What are the effector cells with humoral immunity.

A), B-lymphocytes; B) macrophages; C) T-helper cells; D) plasma cells; E) T-killers

5. In the leucocyte count 80% of the patient's neutrophils. What is the name of this state I?

A) eosinophilia; B) hypoeosinophilia; C) lymphocytosis; D) lymphopenia; E) neutrocytosis

6. When a blood test revealed a sharp decrease in hemoglobin. What is the function of the blood while respecting?

A) transport; B) breathing; C) trophic; D) gomeostatich e Skye; E) protective

7. The structure of the human erythrocyte includes ...

A) a core hemoglobin plasmalemma. granular-mesh structure; B) hemoglobin, plasma and Lemma, cytoplasm and nucleus; C) cytoplasm, plasmalemma, hemoglobin. D) hemoglobin, core, and c protoplasm; E) granular-mesh structure, hemoglobin

8. In a blood smear visible large cells with large bean-shaped nucleus. Tsitopla s ma devoid of grain and colored in a homogeneous light blue color. Determine the cell KR vi.

A) monocyte; B) eosinophil; C) lymphocyte; D) basophil; E) neutrophil

9. Stage of erythropoiesis:

A) erythroblasts progranulocyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte; B) stem cells, reticular about op, erythrocyte; C) stem cell proeritroblast, erythroblast, erythrocyte; D) stem glue t ka, progranulocyte, erythroblast. reticulocyte, erythrocyte; E) stem cell proeritroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

10. What are the effector cells in cell immunity?

A) T-killers; B) T-suppressors; C) T-helper cells; D) macrophages; E) B cells

11. Platelets. All true, except:

A) thrombopoietin - a stimulant of their education; B) formed in the spleen; C) the image is in the bone marrow; D) involved in the formation of a thrombus; E) predshestavenniki have larger dimensions and a giant polyploid nucleus

12. Specify which cells in the bone marrow normally enters the blood?

A) megakaryocyte; B) erythroblast oxyphilous; C) a reticulocyte; D) erythroblast b a zofilny; E) reticular cells

13. Specify blood cells secreting histamine:

A) polymorphonuclear leukocytes; B) eosinophils; C) monocytes; D) Database of-core white blood cells; E) platelets

14. Stem cells. All true, except:

A) similar to that of small lymphocytes; B) contains the cytoplasm and specific c-zero; C) constantly divided; D) is not differentiated; E) can go into the blood of the current

15. Erythropoiesis. All true, except:

A) cells predecessor first oxyphilous. then - basophilic; B) takes place under the action of erythropoietin; C) occurs globin synthesis and accumulation of hemoglobin; D) basophil progenitor cells first, then oxyphilous; E) in the final article of India and the protein synthesizing system collapses

16. Neutrophils. Choose the correct answer

A) formed in the spleen; B) secrete histamine; C) was synthesized antit e la; D) involved in phagocytosis; E) have a rounded nucleus

17. Leukocytes. All true, except:

A) involved in phagocytosis; B) synthesized collagen; C) actively move; D) MIGR and are enrolled in the gradient of the chemical factors; E) are involved in the humoral and cellular immune and aunt

18. The functions of red blood cells:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity; C) cell-mediated immunity; D) blood coagulation; E) no right answer

19. Platelet function:

A) phagocytosis; B) humoral immunity; C) cell-mediated immunity; D) blood coagulation; E) antigen binding

20. Name the place of education in the cell ribosomal RNA and ribosomes:

A) nucleolus; B) mitochondria; C), endoplasmic reticulum; D) plate complex; E) peroxisomes;

21. The structure of the plate system includes:

A) flat tank bubbles; B) small and large bubbles, the membranes, ribosomes; C) microtubules, flat tank desmosomes: D) ribosomes, centrioles. mikrofilame n you; E) flagella, flat tank, bubbles

22. In what period of the cell cycle cells have a diploid DNA content per nucleus (2c)?

A) Synthetic; B) postsynthetic; C) mitosis; D) presynthetic; E) and Synthetic cal and postsynthetic

23. At what stage of mitosis daughter chromosomes apart to Paul Yu himself? A) prophase; B) prometaphase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) the bodies of the phase

24.V which phase of the cell cycle is a synthesis of RNA and protein?

A) presynthetic; B) presynthetic and postsynthetic; C) Synthetic e ENGLISH and postsynthetic; D) Synthetic; E) mitosis

25. Morphological signs of aging cells. All true, except:

A) decrease in the cell; B) increase in large lysosomes; C) n Nako tion of pigment and fat inclusions; D) vacuolization of the cytoplasm and nucleus; E) to the increase of the amount of organelles.

26. What chromosomal figure reflects the stage of prophase of mitosis?

27. The high mobility of the cells is ensured ...

A) pseudopodia; B) absorptive rim; C) cilia, flagella; D) to the brush and capacious; E) microvilli

28. Functions of granular endoplasmic reticulum:

A) protection; B) involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates; C) promotes the absorption of lipids; D) in the synthesis of RNA; E) provides a synthesis of the protein for export from the glue t ki

29.Pri cell division process of cytokinesis occurred. Specify the stage m and mitosis. A) interphase; B) prophase; C) metaphase; D) anaphase; E) and for telof

30.Nazovite place in the cell formation of peroxisomes

A) plate Golgi complex; B) the cell center; C) mitohon Dr. Rhee; D) the endoplasmic reticulum; E) ribosomes

31. Chromosomal figure characteristic of anaphase of mitosis?

32. By nemembrannym cell organelles include:

33. Which figure is typical for chromosomal metaphase stage of mitosis?

34. What are the types of somatic cell division:

A) mitosis, meiosis; B) amitosis meiosis; C) mitosis amitosis; D) meiosis fragmentation; E) curry on kinesis, meiosis

35. For the epithelial layer of cells is characterized by:

Questions for midterm control:

1. Electron microscopy. Its variations.

1. Cytoskeleton. Composition. Function.

2. Crushing. Unlike conventional mitotic division.

1. Light microscopy. Its variations. The main characteristics of the light on the mic osprey.

2. Golgi complex. Structure. Function.

3. Differentiation of the ectoderm. That is formed from it.

1. Staining of sections. Appointment. Variety of colors.

2. Transport of substances into the cell and vice versa. Variety and mechanisms Tran from the port.

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